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MATH SECTION 

 

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Q1: 
A wire that weighs 24 kilograms is cut into two pieces so that one of the pieces weighs 16 
kilograms and is 34 meters long.  If the weight of each piece is proportional to its length, 
how many meters long is the other piece of wire? 
 

A.  8 
B.  11 
C.  13 
D.  17 
E.  20 

 

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Q2: 
If a certain machine produces bolts at a constant rate, how many seconds will it take the 
machine to produce 300 bolts? 

(1)   It takes the machine 56 seconds to produce 40 bolts. 
(2)   It takes the machine 1.4 seconds to produce 1 bolt. 
 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

 

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Q3: 
If km, and p are integers, is k – m – odd? 

(1)     k and m are even and p is odd. 
(2)     km, and p are consecutive integers. 
 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

 

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Q4: 
If x is the product of the positive integers from 1 to 8, inclusive, and if ikm, and p are 
positive integers such that x = 2

i

3

k

5

m

7

p

, then i + k + m + p = 

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A.  4 
B.  7 
C.  8 
D.  11 
E.  12 

 

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Q5: 
If a code word is defined to be a sequence of different letters chosen from the 10 letters 
ABCDEFGHI, and J, what is the ratio of the number of 5-letter code words to 
the number of 4-letter code words? 
 

A.  5 to 4 
B.  3 to 2 
C.  2 to 1 
D.  5 to 1 
E.  6 to 1 

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Q6: 
If two copying machines work simultaneously at their respective constant rates, how 
many copies do they produce in 5 minutes? 

(1)  One of the machines produces copies at the constant rate of 250 copies per 

minute. 

(2)  One of the machines produces copies at twice the constant rate of the other 

machine. 

 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

 

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Q7: 
Is xy x

2

y

2

(1)   14x

2

 = 3 

(2)     y

2

 = 1 

 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

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Q8: 
 
 
 

 

 

 

 

 

 

         

 
 

 

 

 

  

 
 
 
 
 
 
 

 

 

 

 

 

          

 

 

For the cube shown above, what is the degree measure of 

∠ PQR

 

A.  30 
B.  45 
C.  60 
D.  75 
E.  90 

 

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Q9: 
If an integer n is to be chosen at random from the integers 1 to 96, inclusive, what is the 
probability that n(n + 1)(n + 2) will be divisible by 8? 
 

A. 

4

1

 

B. 

8

3

 

C. 

2

1

 

D. 

8

5

 

E. 

4

3

 

 

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Q10: 
A total of $60,000 was invested for one year.  Part of this amount earned simple annual 
interest at the rate of x percent per year, and the rest earned simple annual interest at the 

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rate of y percent per year.  If the total interest earned by the $60,000 for that year was 
$4,080, what is the value of x

(1)     x = 

4

3y

 

(2)  The ratio of the amount that earned interest at the rate of x percent per year to the 

amount that earned interest at the rate of y percent per year was 3 to 2. 

 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

 

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Q11: 
If n and k are positive integers, is n divisible by 6? 

(1)     n = k(+ 1)(- 1) 
(2)     k – 1 is a multiple of 3. 
 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

 

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Q12: 
What was the cost of a certain telephone call? 

(1)   The call lasted 8 minutes. 
(2)  The cost of the first minute of the call was $0.32, which was twice the cost of 

each minute of the call after the first. 

 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

 

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Q13: 
Company S produces two kinds of stereos:  basic and deluxe.  Of the stereos produced by 

Company S last month, 

3

2

 were basic and the rest were deluxe.  If it takes 

5

7

 as many 

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hours to produce a deluxe stereo as it does to produce a basic stereo, then the number of 
hours it took to produce the deluxe stereos last month was what fraction of the total 
number of hours it took to produce all the stereos? 
 

A. 

17

7

 

B. 

31

14

 

C. 

15

7

 

D. 

35

17

 

E. 

2

1

 

 

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Q14: 

99,999

2

 - 1

 

A.  10

10

 - 2 

B.  (10

5

 – 2)

2

 

C.  10

4

(10

5

 – 2) 

D.  10

5

(10

4

 – 2) 

E.  10

5

(10

5

 – 2) 

 

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Q15: 
Is x

+

 

y

> 6? 

(1)   (y)

2

 > 6 

(2)     xy = 2 
 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

 

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Q16: 
What is the probability that a student randomly selected from a class of 60 students will 
be a male who has brown hair? 

(1)   One-half of the students have brown hair. 
(2)   One-third of the students are males. 
 

 

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A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

 

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Q17: 
The number of defects in the first five cars to come through a new production line are 9, 
7, 10, 4, and 6, respectively.  If the sixth car through the production line has either 3, 7, or 
12 defects, for which of theses values does the mean number of defects per car for the 
first six cars equal the median? 
 
 

I. 

II. 

III. 

12 

 
 

A. I 

only

 

B. II 

only 

C. III 

only

 

D. 

I and III only

 

E. 

I, II, and III

 

   

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Q18: 
Which of the following is equal to (2

k

)(5

k − 1

)? 

 

A.  2(10

k − 1

B.  5(10

k − 1

C.  10

k 

 

D.  2(10

k 

E.  10

2k − 1

 

 

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Q19: 
If   = 25, then x

3

 – x

2

 = 

 

A.  5

12

 

B.  5

20

 

C.  6(5

5

D.  5

4

(5

2

 + 1) 

E.  5

8

(5

4

 − 1) 

 

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Q20: 
 
 

 

 

 yº 

   

 

xº 

 
 
 

 

 

 

 

      zº 

 
 
In the parallelogram shown, what is the value of x

(1)     y = 2x 
(2)     x + z = 120 
 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

 

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Q21:  

 

 

 

● 

●      ●  

● 

 

 

A         B      C   

 

 

 

 

       Note:  Figure not drawn to scale. 

 
 

On line segment AD shown, AB = 

2

1

CD and BC = 10.  If AD = 100, then CD = 

 

A.  40 
B.  45 
C.  50 
D.  55 
E.  60 

 

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Q22: 
At a garage sale, all of the prices of the items sold were different.  If the price of a radio 
sold at the garage sale was both the 15th highest price and the 20th lowest price among 
the prices of the items sold, how many items were sold at the garage sale? 
 

A.  33 
B.  34 

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C.  35 
D.  36 
E.  37 

 

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Q23: 

If x ≠ 0, is 

x

x

2

 < 1? 

(1)     x < 1 
(2)     x > −1 
 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

 

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Q24: 
At a certain company, each employee has a salary grade s that is at least 1 and at most 5.  
Each employee receives an hourly wage p, in dollars, determined by the formula p = 9.50 
+ 0.25(s – 1).  An employee with a salary grade of 5 receives how many more dollars per 
hour than an employee with a salary grade of 1? 
 

A.  $0.50 
B.  $1.00 
C.  $1.25 
D.  $1.50 
E.  $1.75 

 

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Q25: 
In the sequence 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, …, each term after the first is twice the previous term.  
What is the sum of the 16th, 17th, and 18th terms in the sequence? 
 

A.  2

18

 

B.  3(2

17

C.  7(2

16

D.  3(2

16

E.  7(2

15

 

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Q26: 

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In the xy-plane, the line with equation ax + by + c = 0, where abc ≠ 0, has slope 

3

2

.  What 

is the value of b

(1)     a = 4 
(2)     c = −6 
 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

 

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Q27: 
Of the cans of peaches inspected yesterday at a certain plant, 1.5 percent failed to pass 

inspection.  Of the cans that failed inspection, 

6

5

 were incorrectly labeled and the rest 

were dented.  If all of the cans that were incorrectly labeled or dented failed inspection, 
how many of the cans of peaches inspected yesterday at the plant were dented? 

(1)  450 of the cans of peaches inspected yesterday at the plant failed to pass 

inspection. 

(2)   29,550 of the cans of peaches inspected yesterday at the plant passed inspection. 
 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

 

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Q28: 
A car traveling at a certain constant speed takes 2 seconds longer to travel 1 kilometer 
than it would take to travel 1 kilometer at 75 kilometers per hour.  At what speed, in 
kilometers per hour, is the car traveling? 
 

A.  71.5 
B.  72 
C.  72.5 
D.  73 
E.  73.5 

 

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Q29: 

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The annual rent collected by a corporation from a certain building was x percent more in 
1998 than in 1997 and y percent less in 1999 than in 1998.  Was the annual rent collected 
by the corporation from the building more in 1999 than in 1997? 

(1)     x > y 

(2)    

100

xy

 < x – y 

 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

 

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Q30: 
 

 

 

 

 4 

Xº 

 
 

 

 

 

 

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In the figure above, O is the center of the circle.  If the area of the shaded region is 2π, 
what is the value of x
 

A. 

2

45

 

B.  30 
C.  45 
D.  60 
E.  90 

 
 

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Q31: 
The numbers x and are three-digit positive integers, and x + y is a four-digit integer.  
The tens digit of x equals 7 and the tens digit of y equals 5.  If x < y, which of the 
following must be true? 
 
 

  I.  The units digit of x + y is greater than the units digit of either x or y

 

 II.  The tens digit of x + y equals 2. 

 

III.  The hundreds digit of y is at least 5. 

 
 

A. II 

only

 

B. III 

only 

C. 

I and II

 

D. 

I and III

 

E. 

II and III

 

 

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Q32: 
If m and v are integers, what is the value of m + v

(1)     mv = 6 
(2)   (m + v)

2

 = 25 

 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

 

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Q33: 

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A teacher gave the same test to three history classes:  AB, and C.  The average 
(arithmetic mean) scores for the three classes were 65, 80, and 77, respectively.  The ratio 
of the numbers of students in each class who took the test was 4 to 6 to 5, respectively.  
What was the average score for the three classes combined? 
 

A.  74 
B.  75 
C.  76 
D.  77 
E.  78 

 

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Q34: 
The number n of units of its product that Company X is scheduled to produce in month t 

of its next fiscal year is given by the formula n = 

t

c

+ 2

1

900

, where c is a constant and t is a 

positive integer between 1 and 6, inclusive.  What is the number of units of its product 
that Company X is scheduled to produce in month 6 of its next fiscal year? 

(1) Company X is scheduled to produce 180 units of its product in month 1 of its 

next fiscal year. 

(2) Company X is scheduled to produce 300 units of its product in month 2 of its 

next fiscal year. 

 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

 

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Q35: 

The operation Δ is defined for all nonzero x and y by x Δ y = x + 

y

x

.  If a > o, then 1 Δ (1 

Δ a) = 
 

A.  a 
B.  a + 1 

C. 

1

+

a

a

 

D. 

1

2

+

+

a

a

 

E. 

1

1

2

+

+

a

a

 

 

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Q36: 
If n is an integer and 100 < n <200, what is the value of n

(1)    

36

n

 is an odd integer. 

(2)    

45

n

 is an even integer. 

 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

 

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Q37: 
If an automobile averaged 22.5 miles per gallon of gasoline, approximately how many 
kilometers per liter of gasoline did the automobile average?  (1 mile = 1.6 kilometers and 
1 gallon = 3.8 liters, both rounded to the nearest tenth.) 
 

A.  3.7 
B.  9.5 
C.  31.4 
D.  53.4 
E.  136.8 

 

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VERBAL SECTION 

 

 
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Q1: 
The four-million-year-old fossilized skeleton known as Lucy is so small compared with 
many other skeletons presumed to be of the same species, and so some paleontologists 
have argued that Lucy represents a different lineage. 
 

A.  presumed to be of the same species, and so 
B.  presumed to be of the same species that 
C.  presumed that they are of the same species, and so 
D.  that they have presumed to be of the same species, so that  
E.  that they have presumed are of the same species, and 

    

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Q2: 
In Greek theology the supreme being was Esaugetu Emissee (Master of Breath), who 
dwelt in an upper realm in which the sky was the floor, and who had the power to give 
and to take away the breath of life. 
 

A.  in which the sky was the floor, and who had the power to give and to take 
B.  where the sky was the floor, having the power to give and to take 
C.  whose floor was the sky, and who has the power of giving and of taking 
D.  in which the sky was the floor, with the power of giving and taking 
E.  whose floor was the sky, having the power to give and take 

    

 
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Q3: 
Today’s technology allows manufacturers to make small cars more fuel-efficient now 
than at any time in their production history. 
 

A.  small cars more fuel-efficient now than at any time in their 
B.  small cars that are more fuel-efficient than they were at any time in their 
C.  small cars that are more fuel-efficient than those at any other time in 
D.  more fuel-efficient small cars than those at any other time in their 
E.  more fuel-efficient small cars now than at any time in 

   

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Q4: 
A new hair-growing drug is being sold for three times the price, per milligram, as the 
drug’s maker charges for another product with the same active ingredient. 
 

A.  as 
B.  than 
C.  that 
D.  of what 
E.  at which 

    

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Q5 to Q7: 

      Many scholars have theorized that 

 

economic development, particularly 

 

industrialization and urbanization, con- 

Line  tributes to the growth of participatory 
  (5)  democracy;  according to this theory, it 

would seem logical that women would 
both demand and gain suffrage in ever 
greater numbers whenever economic 
development expanded their economic 

 (10)  opportunities.  However, the economic 

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development theory is inadequate to 
explain certain historical facts about the 
implementation of women’s suffrage. 
For example, why was women’s suf- 

 (15)  frage, instituted nationally in the United 

States in 1920, not instituted nationally 
in Switzerland until the 1970’s?  Indus- 
trialization was well advanced in both 
countries by 1920:  over 33 percent 

 (20)  of American workers were employed 
 

in various industries, as compared 

 

to 44 percent of Swiss workers. 
Granted, Switzerland and the United 
States diverged in the degree to 

 (25)  which the expansion of industry coin- 

cided with the degree of urbanization: 
only 29 percent of the Swiss population 
lived in cities of 10,000 or more inhabi- 
tants by 1920.  However, urbanization 

 (30)  cannot fully explain women’s suffrage. 

Within the United States prior to 1920, 
for example, only less urbanized 

 

states had granted women suffrage. 
Similarly, less urbanized countries 

(35)  such as Cambodia and Ghana had 

voting rights for women long before 
Switzerland did.  It is true that Switzer- 
land’s urbanized cantons (political 
subdivisions) generally enacted 

(40)  women’s suffrage legislation earlier 

than did rural cantons.  However, 
these cantons often shared other 
characteristics—similar linguistic back- 
grounds and strong leftist parties—that 
may help to explain this phenomenon. 

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Q5: 
The passage states which of the following about Switzerland’s urbanized cantons? 
 

 

 

A.  These cantons shared characteristics other than urbanization that may have 

contributed to their implementation of women’s suffrage. 

B.  These cantons tended to be more politically divided than were rural cantons. 
C.  These cantons shared with certain rural cantons characteristics such as similar 

linguistic backgrounds and strong leftist parties. 

D.  The populations of these cantons shared similar views because urbanization 

furthered the diffusion of ideas among them. 

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E.  These cantons were comparable to the most highly urbanized states in the United 

States in their stance toward the implementation of women’s suffrage. 

 

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Q6: 
The primary purpose of the passage is to 
 

 

 

A.  contrast two explanations for the implementation of women’s suffrage 
B.  demonstrate that one factor contributes more than another factor to the 

implementation of women’s suffrage 

C.  discuss the applicability of a theory for explaining the implementation of 

women’s suffrage 

D.  clarify certain assumptions underlying a particular theory about the 

implementation of women’s suffrage 

E.  explain how a particular historical occurrence was causally connected to the 

implementation of women’s suffrage 

 

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Q7: 
The passage suggests which of the following about urbanization in Switzerland and the 
United States by 1920? 
 

A.  A greater percentage of Swiss industrial workers than American industrial 

workers lived in urban areas. 

B.  There were more cities of 10,000 or more inhabitants in Switzerland than there 

were in the United States. 

C.  Swiss workers living in urban areas were more likely to be employed in industry 

than were American workers living in urban areas. 

D.  Urbanized areas of Switzerland were more likely than similar areas in the United 

States to have strong leftist parties. 

E.  A greater percentage of the United States population than the Swiss population 

lived in urban areas. 

 

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Q8: 
From 1980 to 1989, total consumption of fish in the country of Jurania increased by 4.5 
percent, and total consumption of poultry products there increased by 9.0 percent.  
During the same period, the population of Jurania increased by 6 percent, in part due to 
immigration to Jurania from other countries in the region. 
 
If the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true on the basis of 
them? 
 

A.  During the 1980’s in Jurania, profits of wholesale distributors of poultry products 

increased at a greater rate than did profits of wholesale distributors of fish.  

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B.  For people who immigrated to Jurania during the 1980’s, fish was less likely to be 

a major part of their diet than was poultry. 

C.  In 1989 Juranians consumed twice as much poultry as fish. 
D.  For a significant proportion of Jurania’s population, both fish and poultry 

products were a regular part of their diet during the 1980’s. 

E.  Per capita consumption of fish in Jurania was lower in 1989 than in 1980. 

    

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Q9 to Q12: 

      In its 1903 decision in the case 

 of 

Lone Wolf v. Hitchcock, the United 

 

States Supreme Court rejected the 

Line  efforts of three Native American tribes 
  (5)  to prevent the opening of tribal lands 

to non-Indian settlement without tribal 
consent.  In his study of the Lone 
Wolf case, Blue Clark properly 
emphasizes the Court’s assertion 

 (10)  of a virtually unlimited unilateral power 

of Congress (the House of Represen- 
tatives and the Senate) over Native 
American affairs.  But he fails to note 
the decision’s more far-reaching 

 (15)  impact:  shortly after Lone Wolf, the 

federal government totally abandoned 
negotiation and execution of formal 
written agreements with Indian tribes 
as a prerequisite for the implemen- 

 (20)  tation of federal Indian policy.  Many 

commentators believe that this change 
had already occurred in 1871 when— 
following a dispute between the 

 

House and the Senate over which 

 (25)  chamber should enjoy primacy in 

Indian affairs—Congress abolished 
the making of treaties with Native 
American tribes.  But in reality the 
federal government continued to nego- 

 (30)  tiate formal tribal agreements past 

the turn of the century, treating these 
documents not as treaties with sover- 

 eign 

nations 

requiring ratification by the 

Senate but simply as legislation to be 

 (35)  passed by both houses of Congress. 
 The 

Lone Wolf decision ended this 

era of formal negotiation and finally 

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did away with what had increasingly 
become the empty formality of obtain- 
ing tribal consent. 

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Q9: 
The author of the passage is primarily concerned with 
 

 

 

A.  identifying similarities in two different theories 
B.  evaluating a work of scholarship 
C.  analyzing the significance of a historical event 
D.  debunking a revisionist interpretation 
E.  exploring the relationship between law and social reality 

 

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Q10: 
According to the passage, which of the following was true of relations between the 
federal government and Native American tribes? 
 

 

 

A.  Some Native American tribes approved of the congressional action of 1871 

because it simplified their dealings with the federal government. 

B.  Some Native American tribes were more eager to negotiate treaties with the 

United States after the Lone Wolf decision. 

C.  Prior to the Lone Wolf decision, the Supreme Court was reluctant to hear cases 

involving agreements negotiated between Congress and Native American tribes. 

D.  Prior to 1871, the federal government sometimes negotiated treaties with Native 

American tribes. 

E.  Following 1871, the House exercised more power than did the Senate in the 

government’s dealings with Native American tribes. 

 

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 
Q11: 
As an element in the argument presented by the author of the passage, the reference to 
Blue Clark’s study of the Lone Wolf case serves primarily to 
 

A.  point out that this episode in Native American history has received inadequate 

attention from scholars 

B.  support the contention of the author of the passage that the Lone Wolf decision 

had a greater long-term impact than did the congressional action of 1871 

C.  challenge the validity of the Supreme Court’s decision confirming the unlimited 

unilateral power of Congress in Native American affairs 

D.  refute the argument of commentators who regard the congressional action of 1871 

as the end of the era of formal negotiation between the federal government and 
Native American tribes 

E.  introduce a view about the Lone Wolf decision that the author will expand upon 

 

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Q12: 
According to the passage, which of the following resulted from the Lone Wolf decision? 
 

A.  The Supreme Court took on a greater role in Native American affairs. 
B.  Native American tribes lost their legal standing as sovereign nations in their 

dealings with the federal government, but their ownership of tribal lands was 
confirmed. 

C.  The federal government no longer needed to conclude a formal agreement with a 

Native American tribe in order to carry out policy decisions that affected the tribe. 

D.  The federal government began to appropriate tribal lands for distribution to non-

Indian settlers. 

E.  Native American tribes were no longer able to challenge congressional actions by 

appealing to the Supreme Court. 

 

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Q13: 
A leading figure in the Scottish enlightenment, Adam Smith’s two major books are to 
democratic capitalism what Marx’s Das Kapital is to socialism. 
 

A.  Adam Smith’s two major books are to democratic capitalism what 
B.  Adam Smith’s two major books are to democratic capitalism like 
C.  Adam Smith’s two major books are to democratic capitalism just as 
D.  Adam Smith wrote two major books that are to democratic capitalism similar to 
E.  Adam Smith wrote two major books that are to democratic capitalism what 

   

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Q14: 
Guidebook writer:  I have visited hotels throughout the country and have noticed that in 
those built before 1930 the quality of the original carpentry work is generally superior to 
that in hotels built afterward.  Clearly carpenters working on hotels before 1930 typically 
worked with more skill, care, and effort than carpenters who have worked on hotels built 
subsequently. 

 

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the guidebook writer’s 
argument? 
 

A.  The quality of original carpentry in hotels is generally far superior to the quality 

of original carpentry in other structures, such as houses and stores. 

B.  Hotels built since 1930 can generally accommodate more guests than those built 

before 1930. 

C.  The materials available to carpenters working before 1930 were not significantly 

different in quality from the materials available to carpenters working after 1930. 

D.  The better the quality of original carpentry in a building, the less likely that 

building is to fall into disuse and be demolished.  

E.  The average length of apprenticeship for carpenters has declined significantly 

since 1930. 

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Q15: 
Brochure:  Help conserve our city’s water supply.  By converting the landscaping in your 
yard to a water-conserving landscape, you can greatly reduce your outdoor water use.  A 
water-conserving landscape is natural and attractive, and it also saves you money. 
 
Criticism:  For most people with yards, the savings from converting to a water-
conserving landscape cannot justify the expense of new landscaping, since typically the 
conversion would save less than twenty dollars on a homeowner’s yearly water bills. 
 
Which of the following, if true, provides the best basis for a rebuttal of the criticism? 
 

A.  Even homeowners whose yards do not have water-conserving landscapes can 

conserve water by installing water-saving devices in their homes. 

B.  A conventional landscape generally requires a much greater expenditure on 

fertilizer and herbicide than does a water-conserving landscape. 

C.  A significant proportion of the residents of the city live in buildings that do not 

have yards. 

D.  It costs no more to put in water-conserving landscaping than it does to put in 

conventional landscaping.  

E.  Some homeowners use more water to maintain their yards than they use for all 

other purposes combined. 

    

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Q16: 
Economist:  Tropicorp, which constantly seeks profitable investment opportunities, has 
been buying and clearing sections of tropical forest for cattle ranching, although pastures 
newly created there become useless for grazing after just a few years.  The company has 
not gone into rubber tapping, even though greater profits can be made from rubber 
tapping
, which leaves the forest intact.  Thus, some environmentalists conclude that 
Tropicorp has not acted wholly out of economic self-interest.  However, these 
environmentalists are probably wrong.  The initial investment required for a successful 
rubber-tapping operation is larger than that needed for a cattle ranch.  Furthermore, there 
is a shortage of workers employable in rubber-tapping operations, and finally, taxes are 
higher on profits from rubber tapping than on profits from cattle ranching. 

 

In the economist’s argument, the two boldfaced portions play which of the following 
roles? 
 

A.  The first supports the conclusion of the economist’s argument; the second calls 

that conclusion into question. 

B.  The first states the conclusion of the economist’s argument; the second supports 

that conclusion. 

C.  The first supports the environmentalists’ conclusion; the second states that 

conclusion. 

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D.  The first states the environmentalists’ conclusion; the second states the conclusion 

of the economist’s argument. 

E.  Each supports the conclusion of the economist’s argument. 

    

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Q17: 
Although the restaurant company has recently added many new restaurants across the 
country and its sales have increased dramatically, its sales at restaurants open for more 
than a year have declined. 
 

A.  the restaurant company has recently added many new restaurants across the 

country and its sales have increased dramatically, its 

B.  the restaurant company has recently added many new restaurants across the 

country and its sales increased dramatically, its 

C.  many new restaurants have recently been opened across the country and its sales 

increased dramatically, the restaurant company’s 

D.  having recently added many new restaurants across the country and with its sales 

increasing dramatically, the restaurant company’s  

E.  recently adding many new restaurants across the country and having its sales 

increase dramatically, the restaurant company’s 

    

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Q18: 
Yellow jackets number among the 900 or so species of the world’s social wasps, wasps 
living in a highly cooperative and organized society where they consist almost entirely of 
females—the queen and her sterile female workers. 
 

A.  wasps living in a highly cooperative and organized society where they consist 

almost entirely of 

B.  wasps that live in a highly cooperative and organized society consisting almost 

entirely of 

C.  which means they live in a highly cooperative and organized society, almost all 
D.  which means that their society is highly cooperative, organized, and it is almost 

entirely 

E.  living in a society that is highly cooperative, organized, and it consists of almost 

all 

    

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Q19: 
Though subject to the same wild-animal control efforts that killed off almost all the 
wolves in North America over the past century, the coyote’s amazing ability of adapting 
to the presence of humans has enabled it to expend its range into Alaska and Central 
America. 
 

A.  coyote’s amazing ability of adapting to the presence of humans has enabled it to 

expend its 

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B.  coyote, because of its amazing ability of adapting to the presence of humans, have 

been able to expand their 

C.  coyote, because of its amazing ability to adapt to the presence of humans, has 

been able to expand its 

D.  amazing ability of the coyote to adapt to the presence of humans have enabled it 

to expand the 

E.  amazing ability of the coyote to adapt to the presence of humans has enabled it to 

expand the 

    

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Q20: 
Community activist:  If Morganville wants to keep its central shopping district healthy, it 
should prevent the opening of a huge SaveAll discount department store on the outskirts 
of Morganville.  Records from other small towns show that whenever SaveAll has 
opened a store outside the central shopping district of a small town, within five years the 
town has experienced the bankruptcies of more than a quarter of the stores in the 
shopping district. 

 

The answer to which of the following would be most useful for evaluating the community 
activist’s reasoning? 
 

A.  Have community activists in other towns successfully campaigned against the 

opening of a SaveAll store on the outskirts of their towns? 

B.  Do a large percentage of the residents of Morganville currently do almost all of 

their shopping at stores in Morganville? 

C.  In towns with healthy central shopping districts, what proportion of the stores in 

those districts suffer bankruptcy during a typical five-year period? 

D.  What proportion of the employees at the SaveAll store on the outskirts of 

Morganville will be drawn from Morganville? 

E.  Do newly opened SaveAll stores ever lose money during their first five years of 

operation? 

   

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Q21: 
Hunter:  Hunters alone are blamed for the decline in Greenrock National Forest’s deer 
population over the past ten years.  Yet clearly, black bears have also played an 
important role in this decline.
  In the past ten years, the forest’s protected black bear 
population has risen sharply, and examination of black bears found dead in the forest 
during the deer hunting season showed that a number of them had recently fed on deer. 
 
In the hunter’s argument, the boldface portion plays which of the following roles? 
 

A.  It is the main conclusion of the argument. 
B.  It is an objection that has been raised against the main conclusion of the 

argument. 

C.  It is a judgment that the argument opposes. 

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D.  It is a finding that the argument seeks to explain.  
E.  It provides evidence in support of the main conclusion of the argument. 

    

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Q22 to Q25: 

      Many managers are influenced by 

 

dangerous myths about pay that lead 

 

to counterproductive decisions about 

Line  how their companies compensate 
  (5)  employees.  One such myth is that 

labor rates, the rate per hour paid to 
workers, are identical with labor costs, 
the money spent on labor in relation to 
the productivity of the labor force. 

 (10)  This myth leads to the assumption that 

a company can simply lower its labor 
costs by cutting wages.  But labor 
costs and labor rates are not in fact 
the same:  one company could pay 

 (15)  its workers considerably more than 

another and yet have lower labor 
costs if that company’s productivity 
were higher due to the talent of its 
workforce, the efficiency of its work 

 (20)  processes, or other factors.  The 
 

confusion of costs with rates per- 

 

sists partly because labor rates are 
a convenient target for managers who 
want to make an impact on their com- 

 (25)  pany’s budgets.  Because labor rates 

are highly visible, managers can easily 
compare their company’s rates with 
those of competitors.  Furthermore, 
labor rates often appear to be a 

 (30)  company’s most malleable financial 

variable:  cutting wages appears an 
easier way to control costs than such 

 

options as reconfiguring work pro- 
cesses or altering product design. 

 (35)         The myth that labor rates and labor 

costs are equivalent is supported by 
business journalists, who frequently 
confound the two.  For example, prom- 
inent business journals often remark on 

 (40)  the “high” cost of German labor, citing 

as evidence the average amount paid 

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to German workers.  The myth is also 
perpetuated by the compensation- 
consulting industry, which has its own 

 (45)  incentives to keep such myths alive. 

First, although some of these con- 
sulting firms have recently broadened 
their practices beyond the area of 
compensation, their mainstay con- 

 (50)  tinues to be advising companies on 

changing their compensation prac- 
tices.  Suggesting that a company’s 
performance can be improved in 
some other way than by altering its 

 (55)  pay system may be empirically cor- 

rect but contrary to the consultants’ 
interests.  Furthermore, changes 
to the compensation system may 
appear to be simpler to implement 

 (60)  than changes to other aspects of an 

organization, so managers are more 
likely to find such advice from con- 
sultants palatable.  Finally, to the 
extant that changes in compensation 

 (65)  create new problems, the consultants 

will continue to have work solving the 
problems that result from their advice. 

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 
Q22: 
The author of the passage suggests which of the following about the advice that the 
consulting firms discussed in the passage customarily give to companies attempting to 
control costs? 
 

 

 

A.  It often fails to bring about the intended changes in companies’ compensation 

systems. 

B.  It has highly influenced views that predominate in prominent business journals. 
C.  It tends to result in decreased labor rates but increased labor costs. 
D.  It leads to changes in companies’ compensation practices that are less visible than 

changes to work processes would be. 

E.  It might be different if the consulting firms were less narrowly specialized. 

 

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 
Q23: 
The author of the passage mentions business journals (line 39) primarily in order to 
 

 

 

A.  demonstrate how a particular kind of evidence can be used to support two 

different conclusions 

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B.  cast doubt on a particular view about the average amount paid to German workers 
C.  suggest that business journalists may have a vested interest in perpetuating a 

particular view 

D.  identify one source of support for a view common among business managers 
E.  indicate a way in which a particular myth could be dispelled 

 

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 
Q24: 
It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with 
which of the following statements about compensation? 
 

 

 

A.  A company’s labor costs are not affected by the efficiency of its work processes. 
B.  High labor rates are not necessarily inconsistent with the goals of companies that 

want to reduce costs 

C.  It is more difficult for managers to compare their companies’ labor rates with 

those of competitors than to compare labor costs. 

D.  A company whose labor rates are high is unlikely to have lower labor costs than 

other companies. 

E.  Managers often use information about competitors’ labor costs to calculate those 

companies’ labor rates. 

 

 
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 
Q25: 
According to the passage, which of the following is true about changes to a company’s 
compensation system? 
 

A.  They are often implemented in conjunction with a company’s efforts to 

reconfigure its work processes. 

B.  They have been advocated by prominent business journals as the most direct way 

for a company to bring about changes in its labor costs. 

C.  They are more likely to result in an increase in labor costs than they are to bring 

about competitive advantages for the company. 

D.  They sometimes result in significant cost savings but are likely to create labor-

relations problems for the company. 

E.  They may seem to managers to be relatively easy to implement compared with 

other kinds of changes managers might consider. 

 

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 
Q26: 
Which of following most logically completes the argument? 
 
The last members of a now-extinct species of a European wild deer called the giant dear 
lived in Ireland about 16,000 years ago.  Prehistoric cave paintings in France depict this 
animal as having a large hump on its back.  Fossils of this animal, however, do not show 

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any hump.  Nevertheless, there is no reason to conclude that the cave paintings are 
therefore inaccurate in this regard, since ______. 
 

A.  some prehistoric cave paintings in France also depict other animals as having a 

hump 

B.  fossils of the giant deer are much more common in Ireland than in France 
C.  animal humps are composed of fatty tissue, which dose not fossilize 
D.  the cave paintings of the giant deer were painted well before 16,000 years ago 
E.  only one currently existing species of deer has any anatomical feature that even 

remotely resembles a hump 

    

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Q27: 
Newspaper editorial: 
 
In an attempt to reduce the crime rate, the governor is getting tough on criminals and 
making prison conditions harsher.  Part of this effort has been to deny inmates the access 
they formerly had to college-level courses.  However, this action is clearly counter to the 
governor’s ultimate goal, since after being released form prison, inmates who had taken 
such courses committed far fewer crimes overall than other inmates. 
 
Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? 
 

A.  Not being able to take college-level courses while in prison is unlikely to deter 

anyone from a crime that he or she might otherwise have committed. 

B.  Former inmates are no more likely to commit crimes than are members of the 

general population. 

C.  The group of inmates who chose to take college-level courses were not already 

less likely than other inmates to commit crimes after being released. 

D.  Taking high school level courses in prison has less effect on an inmate’s 

subsequent behavior than taking college-level courses does. 

E.  The governor’s ultimate goal actually is to gain popularity by convincing people 

that something effective is being done about crime. 

   

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Q28: 
Antarctica receives more solar radiation than does any other place on Earth, yet the 
temperatures are so cold and the ice cap is reflective, so that little polar ice melts during 
the summer; otherwise, the water levels of the oceans would rise 250 feet and engulf 
most of the world’s great cities. 
 

A.  is reflective, so that little polar ice melts during the summer; otherwise, 
B.  is so reflective that little of the polar ice melts during the summer; were it not to 

do so, 

C.  so reflective that little polar ice melts during the summer, or else 
D.  reflective, so that little of the polar ice melts during the summer, or 

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E.  reflects so that little of the polar ice melts during the summer; if it did 

    

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Q29: 
In ancient Thailand, much of the local artisans’ creative energy was expended for the 
creation of Buddha images and when they constructed and decorated the temples that 
enshrined them. 
 

A.  much of the local artisans’ creative energy was expended for the creation of 

Buddha images and when they constructed and decorated  the temples that 
enshrined them 

B.  much of the local artisans’ creative energy was expended on the creation of 

Buddha images and on construction and decoration of the temples in which they 
were enshrined 

C.  much of the local artisans’ creative energy was expended on the creation of 

Buddha images as well as constructing and decoration of the temples in which 
they were enshrined 

D.  creating images of Buddha accounted for much of the local artisans’ creative 

energy, and also constructing and decorating the temples enshrining them  

E.  the creating of Buddha images accounted for much of  the local artisans’ creative 

energy as well as construction and decoration of the temples that enshrined them 

    

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Q30: 
Data gathered by weather satellites has been analyzed by scientists, reporting that the 
Earth’s northern latitudes have become about ten percent greener since 1980, due to more 
vigorous plant growth associated with warmer temperatures and higher levels of 
atmospheric carbon dioxide. 
 

A.  Data gathered by weather satellites has been analyzed by scientists, reporting that 

the Earth’s northern latitudes have 

B.  Data gathered by weather satellites has been analyzed by scientists, and they 

report the Earth’s northern latitudes as having 

C.  After analyzing data gathered by weather satellites, scientists report that the 

Earth’s northern latitudes have 

D.  After analysis of data, gathered by weather satellites, scientists report the Earth’s 

northern latitudes as having 

E.  After data gathered by weather satellites was analyzed by scientists, who report 

that the Earth’s northern latitudes have 

   

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Q31: 
Twenty-two feet long and 10 feet in diameter, the AM-1 is one of the many new satellites 
that is a part of 15 years effort of subjecting the interactions of Earth’s atmosphere, 
oceans, and land surfaces to detailed scrutiny from space. 
 

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A.  satellites that is a part of 15 years effort of subjecting the interactions of Earth’s 

atmosphere, oceans, and land surfaces 

B.  satellites, which is a part of a 15-year effort to subject how Earth’s atmosphere, 

oceans, and land surfaces interact 

C.  satellites, part of 15 years effort of subjecting how Earth’s atmosphere, oceans, 

and land surfaces are interacting 

D.  satellites that are part of an effort for 15 years that has subjected the interactions 

of Earth’s atmosphere, oceans, and land surfaces 

E.  satellites that are part of a 15-year effort to subject the interactions of Earth’s 

atmosphere, ocean, and land surfaces 

   

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Q32: 
Although most smoking-related illnesses are caused by inhaling the tar in tobacco smoke, 
it is addiction to nicotine that prevents most smokers from quitting.  In  
an effort to decrease the incidence of smoking-related illnesses, lawmakers in Sandonia 
plan to reduce the average quantity of nicotine per cigarette by half over the next five 
years.  Unfortunately, smokers who are already addicted to nicotine tend to react to such 
reductions by smoking correspondingly more cigarettes. 
 
The information above most strongly supports which of the following predictions about 
the effects of implementing the Sandonian government’s plan? 
 

A.  The average quantity of tar inhaled by Sandonian smokers who are currently 

addicted to nicotine will probably not decrease during the next five years. 

B.  Sandonian smokers who are not already addicted to nicotine will probably also 

begin to smoke more cigarettes during the next five years than they had 
previously. 

C.  The annual number of Sandonian smokers developing smoking-related illnesses 

will probably decrease during the next five years. 

D.  The proportion of Sandonians attempting to quit smoking who succeed in that 

attempt will probably decrease during the next five years. 

E.  The number of Sandonians who quit smoking during the next five years will 

probably exceed the number who quit during the last five years. 

   

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Q33: 
Competition in the mid-nineteenth century by large western farms gradually caused 
farmers in Pennsylvania to turn to livestock raising, but before that it was predominantly 
grain-producing. 
 

A.  Competition in the mid-nineteenth century by large western farms gradually 

caused farmers in Pennsylvania to turn to livestock raising, but before that it was 
predominantly grain-producing. 

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B.  Once predominantly a grain-producing state, competition in the mid-nineteenth 

century from large western farms gradually was causing Pennsylvania’s farmers 
to turn to livestock raising. 

C.  Pennsylvania’s farmers were gradually caused to turn to livestock raising by 

competition from large western farms in the mid-nineteenth century, but before 
that it was predominantly a grain-producing state. 

D.  It was once predominantly grain-producing, but competition in the mid-nineteenth 

century by large western farms was gradually causing Pennsylvania’s farmers to 
turn to livestock raising. 

E.  Pennsylvania was once a predominantly grain-producing state, but competition in 

the mid-nineteenth century from large western farms gradually caused the state’s 
farmers to turn to livestock raising. 

  

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Q34: 
Building on civilizations that preceded them in coastal Peru, the Mochica developed their 
own elaborate society, based on cultivating such crops like corn and beans, the harvesting 
of fish and shellfish, and exploiting other wild and domestic resources. 
 

A.  based on cultivating such crops like corn and beans, the harvesting of fish and 

shellfish, and exploiting 

B.  based on the cultivation of such crops as corn and beans, the harvesting of fish 

and seafood, and the exploitation of 

C.  and basing it on the cultivation of crops like corn and beans, harvesting fish and 

seafood, and the exploiting of 

D.  and they based it on their cultivation of crops such as corn and beans, the harvest 

of fish and seafood, and exploiting 

E.  and they based it on their cultivating such crops like corn and beans, their harvest 

of fish and shellfish, and they exploited 

    

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Q35 to Q37: 

      In addition to conventional 

 

galaxies, the universe contains 

 

very dim galaxies that until 

Line  recently went unnoticed by 
  (5)  astronomers.  Possibly as 

numerous as conventional gal- 
axies, these galaxies have the 
same general shape and even 
the same approximate number 

(10)  of stars as a common type of 

conventional galaxy, the spiral, 
but tend to be much larger. 
Because these galaxies’ 
mass is spread out over 

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 (15)  larger areas, they have far 

fewer stars per unit volume 
than do conventional galaxies. 
Apparently these low-surface- 
brightness galaxies, as they 

 (20)  are called, take much longer 
 

than conventional galaxies to 

 

condense their primordial gas 
and convert it to stars—that is, 
they evolve much more slowly. 

 (25)        These galaxies may 

constitute an answer to the long- 
standing puzzle of the missing 
baryonic mass in the universe. 
Baryons—subatomic particles 

 (30)  that are generally protons or 

neutrons—are the source of 
stellar, and therefore galactic, 

 

luminosity, and so their numbers 
can be estimated based on how 

 (35)   luminous galaxies are.  How- 

ever, the amount of helium 
in the universe, as measured 
by spectroscopy, suggests 

 

that there are far more baryons 

 (40)  in the universe than estimates 

based on galactic luminosity 
indicate.  Astronomers have 
long speculated that the missing 
baryonic mass might eventually 

 (45)  be discovered in intergalactic 

space or as some large popu- 
lation of galaxies that are difficult 
to detect. 

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Q35: 
The primary purpose of the passage is to 
 

 

 

A.  describe a phenomenon and consider its scientific significance 
B.  contrast two phenomena and discuss a puzzling difference between them 
C.  identify a newly discovered phenomenon and explain its origins 
D.  compare two classes of objects and discuss the physical properties of each 
E.  discuss a discovery and point out its inconsistency with existing theory 

 

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Q36: 

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The author mentions the fact that baryons are the source of stars’ luminosity primarily in 
order to explain 
 

 

 

A.  how astronomers determine that some galaxies contain fewer stars per unit 

volume than do others 

B.  how astronomers are able to calculate the total luminosity of a galaxy 
C.  why astronomers can use galactic luminosity to estimate baryonic mass 
D.  why astronomers’ estimates of baryonic mass based on galactic luminosity are 

more reliable than those based on spectroscopic studies of helium 

E.  how astronomers know bright galaxies contain more baryons than do dim galaxies 

 

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Q37: 
It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is an accurate physical 
description of typical low-surface-brightness galaxies? 
 

A.  They are large spiral galaxies containing fewer stars than do conventional 

galaxies. 

B.  They are compact but very dim spiral galaxies. 
C.  They are diffuse spiral galaxies that occupy a large volume of space. 
D.  They are small, young spiral galaxies that contain a high proportion of primordial 

gas. 

E.  They are large, dense spirals with low luminosity. 

 

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Q38: 
Two centuries ago, Tufe Peninsula became separated form the mainland, isolating on the 
newly formed Tufe Island a population of Turfil sunflowers.  This population’s 
descendants grow to be, on average, 40 centimeters shorter than Turfil sunflowers found 
on the mainland.  Tufe Island is significantly drier than Tufe Peninsula was.  So the 
current average height of Tufe’s Turfil sunflowers is undoubtedly at least partially 
attributable to changes in Tufe’s environmental conditions. 
 
Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? 
 

A.  There are no types of vegetation on Tufe Island that are known to benefit from 

dry conditions. 

B.  There were about as many Turfil sunflowers on Tufe Peninsula two centuries ago 

as there are on Tufe Island today. 

C.  The mainland’s environment has not changed in ways that have resulted in Turfil 

sunflowers on the mainland growing to be 40 centimeters taller than they did two 
centuries ago. 

D.  The soil on Tufe Island, unlike that on the mainland, lacks important nutrients that 

help Turfil sunflowers survive and grow tall in a dry environment. 

E.  The 40-centimeter height difference between the Turfil sunflowers on Tufe Island 

and those on the mainland is the only difference between the two populations. 

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Q39: 
Minivans carry as many as seven passengers and, compared with most sport utility 
vehicles, cost less, get better gas mileage, allow passengers to get in and out more easily, 
and have a smoother ride. 
 

A.  Minivans carry as many as seven passengers and, compared with most sport 

utility vehicles, cost less, 

B.  Minivans, which carry as many as seven passengers, compared with most sport 

utility vehicles, they cost less, 

C.  Minivans carry as many as seven passengers, in comparison with most sport 

utility vehicles, and have a lower cost, they  

D.  Minivans, carrying as many as seven passengers, compared with most sport 

utility vehicles, cost less, 

E.  Minivans, which carry as many as seven passengers, compared with most sport 

utility vehicles the cost is lower, and they 

  

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Q41: 
The coyote is one of several recent ecological success stories:  along with the white-tailed 
deer, the moose, and other species that are enlarging their natural domains, they have 
established themselves as supreme adapters in an era when the capability to adjust to the 
environmental changes wrought by human beings has created a whole new class of 
dominant large mammals. 
 

A.  they have established themselves as supreme adapters in an era when the 

capability 

B.  they have established themselves as being supreme adapters in an era when being 

able 

C.  it has established itself as a supreme adapter in an era when to be able 
D.  it has established itself as being a supreme adapter in an era when its ability 
E.  it has established itself as a supreme adapter in an era when the ability 

    

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Maths Answer: 
1.  D  
2.  D 
3.  A 
4.  D 
5.  E 
6.  E 
7.  E 
8.  C 

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9.  D 
10. C 
11. A 
12. C 
13. A 
14. E 
15. E 
16. E 
17. D 
18. A 
19. E 
20. D 
21. E 
22. B 
23. C 
24. C 
25. E 
26. A 
27. D 
28. B 
29. B 
30. C 
31. B 
32. E 
33. B 
34. D 
35. E 
36. C 
37. B 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Verbal Answer:: 
1.  B 
2.  A 
3.  C 
4.  D 
5.  A 
6.  C 
7.  E 
8.  E 
9.  C 
10. D 

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11. E 
12. E 
13. E 
14. D 
15. B 
16. C 
17. A 
18. B 
19. C 
20. C 
21. A 
22. A 
23. D 
24. B 
25. E 
26. C 
27. A 
28. B 
29. B 
30. C 
31. E 
32. A 
33. E 
34. B 
35. A 
36. C 
37. C 
38. C 
39. D 
40. x 
41. E 
 (Note: Q40 is missing!) 
 
 
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