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Math Section

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Q2: 
A researcher plans to identify each participant in a certain medical experiment with a 
code consisting of either a single letter or a pair of distinct letters written in alphabetical 
order.  What is the least number of letters that can be used if there are 12 participants, and 
each participant is to receive a different code? 
 

A.  4 
B.  5 
C.  6 
D.  7 
E.  8 

Answer:  

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Q8: 
 

 

     

 

        G 

 
 
 
 

   

 

    

 

 

 C 

 
 

 

 

 

          H 

 
 
 

 

 

     

 

           D 

 
The figure above is a cube.  What is the measure of angle BEG (not shown)? 
 

A.  30° 
B.  45° 
C.  60° 
D.  75° 
E.  90° 

Answer:  

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Q10: 
Max has $125 consisting of bills each worth either $5 or $20.  How many bills worth $5 
does Max have? 

(1)   Max has fewer than 5 bills worth $5 each. 
(2)   Max has more than 5 bills worth $20 each. 
 

 

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A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

Answer:  

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Q12: 
At a sale all books were priced equally and all magazines were priced equally.  What was 
the price of 3 books and 4 magazines at the sale? 

(1)   At the sale the price of a book was $1.45 more than the price of a magazine. 
(2)   At the sale the price of 6 books and 8 magazines was $43.70. 
 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

Answer:  

 
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Q13: 
How many different 6-letter sequences are there that consist of 1 A, 2 B

s, and 3 C

s ? 

 

A.  6 
B.  60 
C.  120 
D.  360 
E.  720 

Answer:  

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Q14: 
A pharmaceutical company received $3 million in royalties on the first $20 million in 
sales of the generic equivalent of one of its products and then $9 million in royalties on 
the next $108 million in sales.  By approximately what percent did the ratio of royalties 
to sales decrease from the first $20 million in sales to the next $108 million in sales?  
 

A.  8% 
B.  15% 
C.  45% 
D.  52% 
E.  56% 

Answer:  

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Q17: 
If is a positive integer, what is the remainder when (7

4+ 3

)(6

n

) is divided by 10 ? 

 

A.  1 
B.  2 
C.  4 
D.  6 
E.  8 

Answer:  

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Q19: 
Is the integer n odd? 

(1)   n is divisible by 3. 
(2)   2n is divisible by twice as many positive integers as n
 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

Answer:  

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Q22: 
 

NUMBER OF SHIPMENTS OF MANUFACTURED 

HOMES IN THE UNITED STATES, 1990-2000

0

100,000

200,000

300,000

400,000

 1990           1992          1994           1996           1998          2000

Year

Number of 

Shipments

 
 

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According to the chart shown, which of the following is closest to the median annual 
number of shipments of manufactured homes in the United States for the years from 1990 
to 2000, inclusive? 
 

A.  250,000 
B.  280,000 
C.  310,000 
D.  325,000 
E.  340,000 

Answer:  

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Q24: 
A certain fruit stand sold apples for $0.70 each and bananas for $0.50 each.  If a customer 
purchased both apples and bananas from the stand for a total of $6.30, what total number 
of apples and bananas did the customer purchase? 
 

A.  10 
B.  11 
C.  12 
D.  13 
E.  14 

Answer:  

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Q32: 
A certain list consists of 3 different numbers.  Does the median of the 3 numbers equal 
the average (arithmetic mean) of the 3 numbers? 

(1)  The range of the 3 numbers is equal to twice the difference between the greatest 

number and the median. 

(2)   The sum of the 3 numbers is equal to 3 times one of the numbers. 
 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

Answer:  

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Q33: 
Working simultaneously and independently at an identical constant rate, 4 machines of a 
certain type can produce a total of x units of product in 6 days.  How many of these 
machines, working simultaneously and independently at this constant rate, can produce a 
total of 3x units of product P in 4 days? 
 

A.  24 
B.  18 

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C.  16 
D.  12 
E.  8 

Answer:  

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Q35: 
The weights of all dishes of type X are exactly the same, and the weights of all dishes of 
type Y are exactly the same.  Is the weight of 1 dish of type X less than the weight of 1 
dish of type Y ? 

(1)  The total weight of 3 dishes of type X and 2 dishes of type Y is less than the total 

weight of 2 dishes of type X and 4 dishes of type Y

(2)  The total weight of 4 dishes of type X and 3 dishes of type Y is less than the total 

weight of 3 dishes of type X and 4 dishes of type Y

 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

Answer:  

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Q36: 
If xy, and z are positive integers, is xz even? 

(1)   xy is even. 
(2)   yz is even. 
 

 

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient. 
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient. 
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is 
sufficient. 
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient. 
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient. 

Answer:  

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Q37: 
A club with a total membership of 30 has formed 3 committees, MS, and R, which have 
8, 12, and 5 members, respectively.  If no member of committee M is on either of the 
other 2 committees, what is the greatest possible number of members in the club who are 
on none of the committees? 
 

A.  5 
B.  7 
C.  8 
D.  10 
E.  12 

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Answer:  

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Answers: 
BCDBB, CEBCB, DBBED 
 
 

Verbal Section 

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Q1: 
A mixture of poems and short fiction, Jean Toomer’

Cane has been called one of the 

three best novels ever written by Black Americans— the others being Richard Wright, 
author of Native Son, and Ralph Ellison, author of Invisible Man
 

 

A.  Black Americans— the others being Richard Wright, author of Native Son, and 

Ralph Ellison, author of Invisible Man 

B.  Black Americans— including Native Son by Richard Wright and Invisible Man by 

Ralph Ellison 

C.  a Black American— including Richard Wright, author of Native Son, and Ralph 

Ellison, author of Invisible Man 

D.  a Black American— the others being Richard Wright, author of Native Son, and 

Ralph Ellison, author of Invisible Man 

E.  a Black American— the others being Richard Wright’

Native Son and Ralph 

Ellison’s Invisible Man 

   Answer:  

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Q2: 
In an attempt to produce premium oysters, a firm in Scotland has developed a prototype 
of a submersible oyster farm, sitting below the surface of the ocean, and it provides ideal 
conditions for the mollusks’

 

growth. 

 

A.  farm, sitting below the surface of the ocean, and it provides 
B.  farm, sitting below the surface of the ocean for providing 
C.  farm that sits below the surface of the ocean and providing 
D.  farm that sits below the surface of the ocean and provides 
E.  farm that is sitting below the surface of the ocean and it provides 

   Answer:  

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Q3: 
Because of wireless service costs plummeting in the last year, and as mobile phones are 
increasingly common, many people now using their mobile phones to make calls across a 
wide region at night and on weekends, when numerous wireless companies provide 
unlimited airtime for a relatively small monthly fee. 
 

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A.  Because of wireless service costs plummeting in the last year, and as mobile 

phones are increasingly common, many people 

B.  As the cost of wireless service plummeted in the last year and as mobile phones 

became increasingly common, many people 

C.  In the last year, with the cost of wireless service plummeting, and mobile phones 

have become increasingly common, there are many people 

D.  With the cost of wireless service plummeting in the last year and mobile phones 

becoming increasingly common, many people are 

E.  While the cost of wireless service has plummeted in the last year and mobile 

phones are increasingly common, many people are 

   Answer:  

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Q4 to Q7: 

 

      By the sixteenth century, the Incas 

 

of South America ruled an empire that 

 

extended along the Pacific coast and 

Line 

Andean highlands from what is now 

  (5) 

Ecuador to central Chile.  While most 
of the Incas were self-sufficient 
agriculturists, the inhabitants of the 
highland basins above 9,000 feet were 
constrained by the kinds of crops they 

 (10) 

could cultivate.  Whereas 95 percent 
of the principal Andean food crops can 
be cultivated below 3,000 feet, only 
20 percent reproduce readily above 
9,000 feet.  Given this unequal 

 (15) 

resource distribution, highland Incas 
needed access to the products of 
lower, warmer climatic zones in order 
to enlarge the variety and quantity of 
their foodstuffs.  In most of the prein- 

 (20) 

dustrial world, the problem of different 
resource distribution was resolved by 
long-distance trade networks over 

 

which the end consumer exercised 

 

little control.  Although the peoples 

 (25) 

of the Andean highlands participated 
in such networks, they relied primarily 
on the maintenance of autonomous 
production forces in as many eco- 
logical zones as possible.  The 

 (30) 

commodities produced in these 
zones were extracted, processed, 
and transported entirely by members 
of a single group. 

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      This strategy of direct access 

 (35) 

to a maximum number of ecological 
zones by a single group is called 
vertical economy.  Even today, 
one can see Andean communities 
maintaining use rights simultaneously 

(40)   to pasturelands above 12,000 feet, to 

potato fields in basins over 9,000 feet, 

 

and to plots of warm-land crops in 
regions below 6,000 feet.  This 
strategy has two principal variations. 

 (45) 

The first is “compressed verticality,” 
in which a single village resides in 
a location that permits easy access 
to closely located ecological zones. 
Different crop zones or pasturelands 

 (50) 

are located within a few days walk of  
the parent community.  Community 
members may reside temporarily 
in one of the lower zones to manage 
the extraction of products unavailable 

 (55) 

in the homeland.  In the second varia- 
tion, called the “vertical archipelago,” 
the village exploits resources in widely 
dispersed locations, constituting a 
series of independent production 

 (60) 

islands.”  In certain pre-Columbian 

Inca societies, groups were sent from 
the home territory to establish perma- 
nent satellite communities or colonies 
in distant tropical forests or coastal 

 (65) 

locations.  There the colonists grew 
crops and extracted products for their 
own use and for transshipment back 
to their high-altitude compatriots. 
In contrast to the compressed 

 (70) 

verticality system, in this system, 
commodities rather than people 
circulated through the archipelago. 

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 
Q4: 
According to the passage, which of the following is true about the preindustrial long-
distance trade networks mentioned in line 22 ? 
 

 

 

A.  They were not used extensively in most of the preindustrial world.  
B.  They were used to some extent by the people of the Andean highlands. 

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C.  They were not an effective means of solving the problem of different resource 

distribution. 

D.  They necessitated the establishment of permanent satellite communities in widely 

dispersed locations. 

E.  They were useful only for the transportation of products from warm climatic 

zones. 

Answer:  

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Q5: 
According to the passage, the inhabitants of the Andean highlands resolved the problem 
of unequal resource distribution primarily in which of the following ways? 
 

 

 

A.  Following self-sufficient agricultural practices 
B.  Increasing commodity production from the ecological zones in the highland 

basins 

C.  Increasing their reliance on long-distance trade networks 
D.  Establishing satellite communities throughout the Andean highlands 
E.  Establishing production forces in ecological zones beyond their parent 

communities 

Answer:  

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Q6: 
The passage suggests that as a way of addressing the problem of different resource 
distribution in the preindustrial world, the practice of vertical economy differed from the 
use of long-distance trade networks in that vertical economy allowed 
 

 

 

A.  commodities to reach the end consumer faster 
B.  a wide variety of agricultural goods to reach the end consumer 
C.  a single group to maintain control over the production process 
D.  greater access to commodities from lower, warmer climatic zones 
E.  greater use of self-sufficient agricultural techniques 

Answer:  

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Q7: 
The passage suggests that for an Andean highland village attempting to resolve the 
problem of unequal resource distribution, the strategy known as compressed verticality 
would probably be inappropriate for which of the following situations? 
 

A.  The village’

s location is such that it is difficult for the village to participate in 

long-distance trade networks. 

B.  The village does not have the resources to establish permanent satellite 

communities in production zones beyond the home community. 

C.  The warm-land crop regions nearest to the village are all below 6,000 feet. 
D.  The location of the village does not provide ready access to an adequate variety of 

ecological zones. 

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10 

E.  The nearest crop production zones are located below the village, while the nearest 

pasturelands are located above the village. 

Answer:  

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Q8: 
Many large department stores in Montalia now provide shopping carts for their customers.  
Since customers using shopping carts tend to buy more than those without shopping carts, 
most of these stores are experiencing strong sales growth, while most other department 
stores are not.  Therefore, in order to boost sales, managers of Jerrod’

s, Montalia’

premier department store, are planning to purchase shopping carts and make them 
available to the store’

s customers next month. 

 
Which of the following, if true, casts most doubt whether the managers’

 

plan, if 

implemented, will achieve its goal? 
 

A.  Since most customers associate shopping carts with low-quality discount stores, 

Jerrod’

s high-quality image would likely suffer if shopping carts were introduced. 

B.  Because the unemployment rate has declined to very low levels, Jerrod’

s now has 

to pay significantly higher wages in order to retain its staff. 

C.  A number of department stores that did not make shopping carts available to their 

customers have had to close recently due to falling profits. 

D.  Shopping carts are not very expensive, but they generally need to be replaced 

every few years. 

E.  Stores that make shopping carts available to their customers usually have to hire 

people to retrieve the carts from parking areas. 

   Answer:  

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Q9 to Q11: 

      Among the myths taken as 

 

fact by the environmental manag- 

 

ers of most corporations is the 

Line 

belief that environmental regula- 

  (5) 

tions affect all competitors in 
a given industry uniformly.  In 
reality, regulatory costs— and 
therefore compliance— fall 
unevenly, economically disad- 

 (10) 

vantaging some companies and 
benefiting others.  For example, 
a plant situated near a number 
of larger noncompliant competi- 
tors is less likely to attract the 

 (15) 

attention of local regulators than 
is an isolated plant, and less 
attention means lower costs. 
Additionally, large plants can 

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11 

spread compliance costs such 

 (20) 

as waste treatment across a 

 

larger revenue base; on the other 

 

hand, some smaller plants may 
not even be subject to certain 
provisions such as permit or 

 (25) 

reporting requirements by virtue 
of their size.  Finally, older pro- 
duction technologies often 
continue to generate toxic wastes 
that were not regulated when the 

 (30) 

technology was first adopted. 
New regulations have imposed 
extensive compliance costs on 

 

companies still using older 
industrial coal-fired burners that 

 (35)   generate high sulfur dioxide and 

nitrogen oxide outputs, for 
example, whereas new facilities 
generally avoid processes that 

 

would create such waste pro- 

 (40)  ducts.  By realizing that they 

have discretion and that not all 
industries are affected equally 
by environmental regulation, 
environmental managers can 

 (45) 

help their companies to achieve 
a competitive edge by anticipat- 
ing regulatory pressure and 
exploring all possibilities for 
addressing how changing regula- 

 (50) 

tions will affect their companies 
specifically. 

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 
Q9: 
Which of the following hypothetical examples would best illustrate the point the author 
makes in lines 40-51 (“By realizing … specifically.”)? 
 

 

 

A.  Believing its closest competitor is about to do the same, a plant reduces its output 

of a toxic chemical at great cost in order to comply with environmental 
regulations. 

B.  In the face of new environmental regulations, a plant maintains its production 

methods and passes the costs of compliance on to its customers. 

C.  A plant’

s manager learns of a competitor’

s methods of lowering environmental 

compliance costs but is reluctant to implement those methods. 

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12 

D.  Having learned of an upcoming environmental ban on a certain chemical, a 

company designs its new plant to employ processes that avoid use of that 
chemical. 

E.  A plant attempts to save money by refusing to comply with environmental laws. 

Answer:  

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Q10: 
According to the passage, which of the following statements about sulfur dioxide and 
nitrogen oxide outputs is true? 
 

 

 

A.  Older production technologies cannot be adapted so as to reduce production of 

these outputs as waste products. 

B.  Under the most recent environmental regulations, industrial plants are no longer 

permitted to produce these outputs. 

C.  Although these outputs are environmentally hazardous, some plants still generate 

them as waste products despite the high compliance costs they impose. 

D.  Many older plants have developed innovative technological processes that reduce 

the amounts of these outputs generated as waste products. 

E.  Since the production processes that generate these outputs are less costly than 

alternative processes, these less expensive processes are sometimes adopted 
despite their acknowledged environmental hazards. 

Answer:  

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Q11: 
The passage suggests which of the following concerning the relationship between the 
location of a plant and the compliance costs it faces? 
 

 

 

A.  A plant is less likely to face high compliance costs if it is located near larger 

plants that are in violation of environmental regulations. 

B.  An isolated plant is less likely to draw the attention of environmental regulators, 

resulting in lower compliance costs. 

C.  A large plant that is located near other large facilities will most probably be 

forced to pay high compliance costs. 

D.  A small plant that is located near a number of larger plants will be forced to 

absorb some of its neighbors’

 

compliance costs. 

E.  A plant will often escape high compliance costs if it is located far away from 

environmental regulatory agencies. 

Answer:  

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Q12: 
A mosquito bite can transmit to a person the parasite that causes malaria, and the use of 
mosquito nets over children’

s beds can significantly reduce the incidence of malarial 

infection for children in areas where malaria is common.  Yet public health officials are 
reluctant to recommend the use of mosquito nets over children’

s beds in such areas. 

 

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Which of the following, if true, would provide the strongest grounds for the public health 
officials’

 

reluctance? 

 

A.  Early exposure to malaria increases the body’

s resistance to it and results in a 

lesser likelihood of severe life-threatening episodes of malaria. 

B.  Mosquito bites can transmit to people diseases other than malaria. 
C.  Mosquito nets provide protection from some insect pests other than mosquitoes. 
D.  Although there are vaccines available for many childhood diseases, no vaccine 

has been developed that is effective against malaria. 

E.  The pesticides that are most effective against mosquitoes in regions where malaria 

is common have significant detrimental effects on human health. 

   Answer:  

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Q13: 
Missing on purpose!  I do not want to make everything perfect.  Otherwise students may 
feel too much pressure. 
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Q14: 
The Eurasian ruffe, a fish species inadvertently introduced into North America’

s Great 

Lakes in recent years, feeds on the eggs of lake whitefish, a native species, thus 
threatening the lakes’

 

natural ecosystem.  To help track the ruffe’

s spread, government 

agencies have produced wallet-sized cards about the ruffe.  The cards contain pictures of 
the ruffe and explain the danger they pose; the cards also request anglers to report any 
ruffe they catch. 
 
Which of the following, if true, would provide most support for the prediction that the 
agencies’

 

action will have its intended effect? 

 

A.  The ruffe has spiny fins that make it unattractive as prey. 
B.  Ruffe generally feed at night, but most recreational fishing on the Great Lakes is 

done during daytime hours. 

C.  Most people who fish recreationally on the Great Lakes are interested in the 

preservation of the lake whitefish because it is a highly prized game fish. 

D.  The ruffe is one of several nonnative species in the Great Lakes whose existence 

threatens the survival of lake whitefish populations there. 

E.  The bait that most people use when fishing for whitefish on the Great Lakes is not 

attractive to ruffe. 

   Answer:  

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Q15: 
Dressed as a man and using the name Robert Shurtleff, Deborah Sampson, the first 
woman to draw a soldier’

s pension, joined the Continental Army in 1782 at the age of 22, 

was injured three times, and was discharged in 1783 because she had become too ill to 
serve. 
 

A.  22, was injured three times, and was discharged in 1783 because she had become 

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14 

B.  22, was injured three times, while being discharged in 1783 because she had 

become 

C.  22, and was injured three times, and discharged in 1783, being 
D.  22, injured three times, and was discharged in 1783 because she was 
E.  22, having been injured three times and discharged in 1783, being 

   Answer:  

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Q16: 
A diet high in saturated fats increases a person’

s risk of developing heart disease.  

Regular consumption of red wine reduces that risk.  Per-capita consumption of saturated 
fats is currently about the same in France as in the United States, but there is less heart 
disease there than in the United States because consumption of red wine is higher in 
France.  The difference in regular red-wine consumption has been narrowing, but no 
similar convergence in heart-disease rates has occurred. 
 
Which of the following, if true, most helps to account for the lack of convergence noted 
above? 
 

A.  Consumption of saturated fats is related more strongly to the growth of fatty 

deposits on artery walls, which reduce blood flow to the heart, than it is to heart 
disease directly. 

B.  Over the past 30 years, per-capita consumption of saturated fats has remained 

essentially unchanged in the United States but has increased somewhat in France. 

C.  Reports of the health benefits of red wine have led many people in the United 

States to drink red wine regularly. 

D.  Cigarette smoking, which can also contribute to heart disease, is only slightly 

more common in France than in the United States. 

E.  Regular consumption of red wine is declining dramatically among young adults in 

France, and heart disease typically does not manifest itself until middle age. 

   Answer:  

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Q17: 
Unlike most other mergers in the utility industry, which have been driven by the need to 
save money and extend companies’

 

service areas, the merger of the nation’

s leading gas 

and electric company is intended to create a huge marketing network for the utilities in 
question with states opening their utility markets to competition. 
 

A.  and  electric company is intended to create a huge marketing network for the 

utilities in question with states opening 

B.  and electric companies are intended to create a huge network for marketing the 

utilities in question as states open 

C.  and electric companies are intended to create a huge network that will be 

marketing the utilities in question, with states opening 

D.  company and electric company are intending to create a huge marketing network 

for the utilities in question, with states opening 

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E.  company and leading electric company is intended to create a huge network for 

marketing the utilities in question as states open 

   Answer:  

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Q18: 
On account of a law passed in 1993, making it a crime punishable by imprisonment that a 
United States citizen hold gold in the form of bullion or coins, immigrants found that on 
arrival in the United States they had to surrender all of the gold they had brought with 
them. 
 

A.  On account of a law passed in 1993, making it a crime punishable by 

imprisonment that a United States citizen hold 

B.  With a law passed in 1933 that makes it a crime punishable by imprisonment that 

a United States citizen hold 

C.  A law passed in 1933 that made it a crime punishable by imprisonment for a 

United States citizen holding 

D.  Because of a law passed in 1933 making it a crime punishable by imprisonment 

for a United States citizen to hold 

E.  Due to a law being passed in 1933 that makes it a crime punishable by 

imprisonment for a United States citizen to hold 

   Answer:  

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Q19: 
In many nations, criminal law does not apply to corporations, but in the United Stated 
today, a corporation commits a crime whenever one of its employees commits a crime, if 
the employee acted within the scope of his or her authority and if the corporation 
benefited as a result. 
 

A.  a corporation commits a crime whenever one of its employees commits a crime, if 

the employee acted 

B.  a corporation is committing a crime whenever one of its employees committed a 

crime, if those employees were acting 

C.  corporations commit a crime whenever one of its employees does, on the 

condition that the employee acts 

D.  corporations commit crimes whenever an employee of those corporations commit 

a crime, if it was while acting 

E.  the corporation whose employees commit a crime, commits a crime, whenever the 

employee acted 

   Answer:  

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Q20: 
Which of the following most logically completes the reasoning? 
 
Either food scarcity or excessive hunting can threaten a population of animals.  If the 
group faces food scarcity, individuals in the group will reach reproductive maturity later 
than otherwise.  If the group faces excessive hunting, individuals that reach reproductive 

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16 

maturity earlier will come to predominate.  Therefore, it should be possible to determine 
whether prehistoric mastodons became extinct because of food scarcity or human hunting, 
since there are fossilized mastodon remains from both before and after mastodon 
populations declined, and ______. 
 

A.  there are more fossilized mastodon remains from the period before mastodon 

populations began to decline than from after that period 

B.  the average age at which mastodons from a given period reached reproductive 

maturity can be established from their fossilized remains 

C.  it can be accurately estimated from fossilized remains when mastodons became 

extinct 

D.  it is not known when humans first began hunting mastodons 
E.  climate changes may have gradually reduced the food available to mastodons 

   Answer:  

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Q21 to Q23: 

      In the 1930’

s and 1940’

s, 

 

African American industrial 

 

workers in the southern United 

Line 

States, who constituted 80 per- 

  (5) 

cent of the unskilled factory labor 
force there, strongly supported 
unionization.  While the American 
Federation of Labor (AFL) either 
excluded African Americans or 

 (10) 

maintained racially segregated 
unions, the Congress of Industrial 
Organizations (CIO) organized 
integrated unions nationwide on the 
basis of a stated policy of equal 

 (15) 

rights for all, and African American 
unionists provided the CIO’

s back- 

bone.  Yet it can be argued that 
through contracts negotiated and 
enforced by White union mem- 

 (20) 

bers, unions— CIO unions not 

 

excluded— were often instrumen- 

 

tal in maintaining the occupational 
segregation and other forms of 
racial discrimination that kept 

 (25) 

African Americans socially and 
economically oppressed during 
this period.  However, recognizing 
employers’

 

power over workers  

as a central factor in African 

 (30) 

Americans’

 

economic marginal- 

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17 

ization, African American workers 
saw the need to join with White 

 

workers in seeking change despite 
White unionists’

 

toleration of or 

 (35)   support for racial discrimination. 

The persistent efforts of African 
American unionists eventually paid 
off:  many became highly effective 

 

organizers, gaining the respect of 

 (40)  even racist White unionists by win- 

ning victories for White as well as 
African American workers.  African 
American unionists thus succeeded 
in strengthening the unions while 

 (45) 

using them as instruments of 
African Americans’

 

economic 

empowerment. 

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 
Q21: 
The passage is primarily concerned with 
 

 

 

A.  demonstrating that unions failed to address the concerns of African American 

workers during a particular period 

B.  arguing that African American workers’

 

participation in unions during a particular 

period was ultimately beneficial to them 

C.  contrasting the treatment of African American workers by two different labor 

organizations during a particular period 

D.  giving reasons for the success of African American unionists in winning victories 

for both African American and White workers during a particular period 

E.  questioning one explanation for the attitudes of African American workers toward 

unionization during a particular period 

Answer:  

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 
Q22: 
According to the passage, which of the following was true of many racist White unionists 
during the period discussed in the passage? 
 

 

 

A.  Their attitudes toward African American union organizers changed once they 

recognized that the activities of these organizers were serving workers’

 

interests. 

B.  They were a powerful element in the southern labor movement because they 

constituted the majority of the unskilled factory labor force in the southern United 
States. 

C.  They persisted in opposing the CIO’

s adoption of a stated policy of equal rights 

for all. 

D.  Their primary goal was to strengthen the negotiating power of the unions through 

increasing White union membership. 

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18 

E.  Their advocacy of racial discrimination hampered unions in their efforts to gain 

more power for workers. 

Answer:  

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Q23: 
The author of the passage suggests which of the following about African American 
workers who participated in union activities in the 1930’

s and 1940’

s? 

 

 

 

A.  They believed that the elimination of discrimination within unions was a 

necessary first step toward the achievement of economic advancement for African 
Americans. 

B.  They belonged exclusively to CIO unions because they were excluded from AFL 

unions. 

C.  They believed that the economic advancement of African American workers 

depended on organized efforts to empower all workers. 

D.  Some of them advocated the organization of separate African American unions 

because of discriminatory practices in the AFL and the CIO. 

E.  Many of them did not believe that White unionists in CIO unions would tolerate 

or support racial discrimination against African American workers. 

Answer:  

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Q24: 
For similar cars and drivers, automobile insurance for collision damage has always cost 
more in Greatport than in Fairmont.  Police studies, however, show that cars owned by 
Greatport residents are, on average, slightly less likely to be involved in a collision than 
cars in Fairmont.  Clearly, therefore, insurance companies are making a greater profit on 
collision-damage insurance in Greatport than in Fairmont. 
 
Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? 
 

A.  Repairing typical collision damage does not cost more in Greatport than in 

Fairmont. 

B.  There are no more motorists in Greatport than in Fairmont. 
C.  Greatport residents who have been in a collision are more likely to report it to 

their insurance company than Fairmont residents are. 

D.  Fairmont and Greatport are the cities with the highest collision-damage insurance 

rates. 

E.  The insurance companies were already aware of the difference in the likelihood 

of collisions before the publication of the police reports. 

   Answer:  

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Q25: 
Unlike a female grizzly bear in the Rockies, which typically occupies a range of 50 to 
300 square miles, a male’

s range will cover 200 to 500 and occasionally as many as 600. 

 

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19 

A.  Unlike a female grizzly bear in the Rockies, which typically occupies a range of 

50 to 300 square miles, a male’

s range will cover 200 to 500 and occasionally as 

B.  Unlike the range of a female grizzly bear in the Rockies, typically occupying 50 

to 300 square miles, a male will cover 200 to 500 and occasionally so 

C.  While the typical range of a female grizzly bear in the Rockies is 50 to 300 square 

miles, with males, their range can cover 200 to 500 square miles and occasionally 
so 

D.  Whereas a female grizzly bear in the Rockies typically occupies a range of 50 to 

300 square miles, a male will cover 200 to 500 and occasionally as 

E.  The typical range of a female grizzly bear in the Rockies is 50 to 300 square miles, 

unlike males, which will cover 200 to 500 square miles and occasionally as 

   Answer:  

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Q26: 
Growing evidence that coastal erosion occurs continuously, not in just such calamitous 
bursts like hurricanes, has led scientists and planners to urge a stringent new approach to 
limiting development along the nation’

s shoreline. 

 

A.  coastal erosion occurs continuously, not in just such calamitous bursts like 

hurricanes, has 

B.  coastal erosion occurs continuously, not just in calamitous bursts such as 

hurricanes, has 

C.  coastal erosion is continuously occurring, not in just calamitous bursts like 

hurricanes, having 

D.  there is continuous coastal erosion, not just in calamitous bursts such as 

hurricanes, which has 

E.  there is continuous coastal erosion occurring, not in just such calamitous bursts 

like hurricanes, has 

   Answer:  

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Q27: 
Scientists have identified an asteroid, 2000 BF19, that is about half a mile wide and, if it 
strikes Earth, it can do tremendous damage to part of the planet but probably not cause 
planetwide destruction. 
 

A.  and, if it strikes Earth, it can do tremendous damage to part of the planet but 
B.  and, if it would strike Earth, part of the planet could experience a tremendous 

amount of damage but it would 

C.  and that, if it were to strike Earth, could do tremendous damage to part of the 

planet but would 

D.  and that, if Earth is struck by it, can do part of the planet tremendous damage, but 

it would 

E.  and that, if it strikes Earth, it could experience a tremendous amount of damage 

but 

   Answer:  

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20 

Q28: 
Editorial in Krenlandian Newspaper: 
 
Krenland’

s steelmakers are losing domestic sales because of lower-priced imports, in 

many cases because foreign governments subsidize their steel industries in ways that are 
banned by international treaties.  But whatever the cause, the cost is ultimately going to 
be jobs in Krenland’

s steel industry.  Therefore, it would protect not only steel companies 

but also industrial employment in Krenland if our government took measures to reduce 
cheap steel imports. 
 
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the editorial’

s argument? 

 

A.  Because steel from Krenland is rarely competitive in international markets, only a 

very small portion of Krenlandian steelmakers’

 

revenue comes from exports. 

B.  The international treaties that some governments are violating by giving subsidies 

to steelmakers do not specify any penalties for such violations. 

C.  For many Krenlandian manufacturers who face severe international competition 

in both domestic and export markets, steel constitutes a significant part of their 
raw material costs. 

D.  Because of advances in order-taking, shipping, and inventory systems, the cost of 

shipping steel from foreign producers to Krenland has fallen considerably in 
recent years. 

E.  Wages paid to workers in the steel industry in Krenland differ significantly from 

wages paid to workers in many of the countries that export steel to Krenland. 

   Answer:  

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Q29: 
Twenty-two feet long and 10 feet in diameter, the AM-1 is one of the many new satellites 
that is a part of 15 years effort of subjecting the interactions of Earth’

s atmosphere, 

oceans, and land surfaces to detailed scrutiny from space. 
 

A.  satellites that is a part of 15 years effort of subjecting the interactions of Earth’

atmosphere, oceans, and land surfaces 

B.  satellites, which is a part of a 15-year effort to subject how Earth’

s atmosphere, 

oceans, and land surfaces interact 

C.  satellites, part of 15 years effort of subjecting how Earth’

s atmosphere, oceans, 

and land surfaces are interacting 

D.  satellites that are part of an effort for 15 years that has subjected the interactions 

of Earth’s atmosphere, oceans, and land surfaces 

E.  satellites that are part of a 15-year effort to subject the interactions of Earth’

atmosphere, ocean, and land surfaces 

   Answer:  

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Q30: 
Criminologist:  Some legislators advocate mandating a sentence of life in prison for 
anyone who, having twice served sentences for serious crimes, is subsequently convicted 

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21 

of a third serious crime.  These legislators argue that such a policy would reduce crime 
dramatically,
 since it would take people with a proven tendency to commit crimes off 
the streets permanently.  What this reasoning overlooks, however, is that people old 
enough to have served two prison sentences for serious crimes rarely commit more than 
one subsequent crime.  Filling our prisons with such individuals would have exactly 
the opposite of the desired effect,
 since it would limit our ability to incarcerate younger 
criminals, who commit a far greater proportion of serious crimes. 
 
In the argument as a whole, the two boldfaced portions play which of the following roles? 
 

A.  The first is a conclusion that the argument as a whole seeks to refute; the second 

is a claim that has been advanced in support of that conclusion. 

B.  The first is a conclusion that the argument as a whole seeks to refute; the second 

is the main conclusion of the argument. 

C.  The first is the main conclusion of the argument; the second is an objection that 

has been raised against that conclusion. 

D.  The first is the main conclusion of the argument; the second is a prediction made 

on the basis of that conclusion. 

E.  The first is a generalization about the likely effect of a policy under consideration 

in the argument; the second points out a group of exceptional cases to which that 
generalization does not apply. 

   Answer:  

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Q31: 
The current economic downturn has significantly reduced advertising income both for 
business journals as well as general consumer magazines, especially if focusing on 
technology. 
 

A.  has significantly reduced advertising income both for business journals as well as 

general consumer magazines, especially if focusing 

B.  has significantly reduced advertising income both for business journals and for 

general consumer magazines, especially those focusing 

C.  significantly reduced advertising income for both business journals and for 

general consumer magazines, especially when focused 

D.  reduced both business journals’

 

and general consumer magazines’

 

advertising 

income significantly, especially if focused 

E.  reduced advertising income significantly for both business journals, as well as for 

general consumer magazines, especially those focusing 

   Answer:  

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Q32: 
The United States minted about 857 million silver-colored “

Susan B. Anthony” dollars 

between 1979 and 1981, but the coin proved unpopular because it looked and felt too 
much like a quarter. 
 

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22 

A.  The United States minted about 857 million silver-colored “Susan B. Anthony” 

dollars between 1979 and 1981, but the coin 

B.  About 857 million silver-colored “

Susan B. Anthony” dollars were minted as 

coins in the United States between 1979 and 1981 but 

C.  About 857 million silver-colored “

Susan B. Anthony” dollars that were minted 

between 1979 and 1981 in the United States 

D.  About 857 million silver-colored “

Susan B. Anthony” dollars that the United 

States minted between 1979 and 1981 

E.  Between 1979 and 1981 the United States minted about 857 million silver-colored 

Susan B. Anthony” dollars, which 

   Answer:  

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Q33 to Q36: 

      Scientists studying the physiology 

 

of dinosaurs have long debated whether 

 

dinosaurs were warm- or cold-blooded. 

Line 

Those who suspect they were warm- 

  (5) 

blooded point out that dinosaur bone 
is generally fibro-lamellar in nature; 
because fibro-lamellar bone is formed 
quickly, the bone fibrils, or filaments, are 
laid down haphazardly.  Consistent with 

 (10) 

their rapid growth rate, warm-blooded 
animals, such as birds and mammals, 
tend to produce fibro-lamellar bone, 
whereas reptiles, which are slow- 
growing and cold-blooded, generally 

 (15) 

produce bone in which fibrils are laid 
down parallel to each other.  Moreover, 
like the bone of birds and mammals, 
dinosaur bone tends to be highly 
vascularized, or filled with blood 

 (20) 

vessels.  These characteristics, 

 

first recognized in the 1930’

s, 

 

were documented in the 1960’

s by 

de Ricqlès, who found highly vascular- 
ized, fibro-lamellar bone in several 

 (25) 

groups of dinosaurs.  In the 1970’

s, 

Bakker cited these characteristics as 
evidence for the warm-bloodedness of 
dinosaurs.  Although de Ricqlès urged 
caution, arguing for an intermediate type 

 (30) 

of dinosaur physiology, a generation of 
paleontologists has come to believe 
that dinosaur bone is mammalianlike. 
      In the 1980’

s, however, Bakker’s 

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23 

 

contention began to be questioned, as a 

 (35) 

number of scientists found growth rings 
in the bones of various dinosaurs that 
are much like those in modern reptiles. 
Bone growth in reptiles is periodic in 
nature, producing a series of concentric 

 (40) 

rings in the bone, not unlike the growth 

 

rings of a tree.  Recently, Chinsamy 
investigated the bones of two dino- 
saurs from the early Jurassic period 
(208-187 million years ago), and found 

 (45) 

that these bones also had growth rings; 
however, they were also partially fibro- 
lamellar in nature.  Chinsamy’

s work 

raises a question central to the debate 
over dinosaur physiology:  did dino- 

 (50) 

saurs form fibro-lamellar bone because 
of an innately high metabolic rate asso- 
ciated with warm-bloodedness or 
because of periods of unusually fast 
growth that occurred under favorable 

 (55) 

environmental conditions?  (Although 
modern reptiles generally do not form 
fibro-lamellar bone, juvenile crocodiles 
raised under optimal environmental 
conditions do.)  This question remains 

 (60) 

unanswered; indeed, taking all the evi- 
dence into account, one cannot make 
a definitive statement about dinosaur 
physiology on the basis of dinosaur 
bone.  It may be that dinosaurs had an 

 (65) 

intermediate pattern of bone structure 
because their physiology was neither 
typically reptilian, mammalian, nor avian. 

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 
Q33: 
The author of the passage would be most likely to agree that the “caution” (line 29) urged 
by de Ricqlès regarding claims about dinosaur physiology was 
 

 

 

A.  unjustified by the evidence available to de Ricqlès 
B.  unnecessary, given the work done by Bakker and his followers 
C.  indicative of the prevailing scientific opinion at the time 
D.  warranted, given certain subsequent findings of other scientists 
E.  influential in the recent work of Chinsamy 

Answer:  

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24 

Q34: 
The primary purpose of the passage is to 
 

 

 

A.  discuss the influence on other scientists of Bakker’

s argument concerning the 

warm-bloodedness of dinosaurs 

B.  provide evidence that supports the claim that dinosaurs were cold-blooded 
C.  challenge the contention that dinosaur bone tissue is innately fibro-lamellar 
D.  evaluate the claim that dinosaur bone tissue provides evidence for the warm-

bloodedness of dinosaurs 

E.  resolve the disagreement between de Ricqlès and Bakker over the nature of 

dinosaur physiology 

Answer:  

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 
Q35: 
According to the passage, the discovery of growth rings in the bones of certain dinosaurs 
served to undermine which of the following claims? 
 

 

 

A.  That modern reptiles are related to dinosaurs 
B.  That bone growth in dinosaurs was periodic in nature 
C.  That dinosaurs were warm-blooded 
D.  That dinosaurs had an intermediate type of physiology 
E.  That fibro-lamellar bone is the product of a rapid growth rate 

Answer:  

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 
Q36: 
The author of the passage mentions bone growth patterns in juvenile crocodiles most 
likely in order to 
 

A.  provide support for the argument that reptiles are not related to dinosaurs 
B.  undermine the claim that most reptiles are slow-growing 
C.  offer an explanation as to why juvenile crocodiles differ from most modern 

reptiles 

D.  suggest the juvenile crocodiles have a type of physiology intermediate between 

that of mammals and that of reptiles 

E.  suggest that the presence of fibro-lamellar bone does not resolve the debate over 

dinosaur physiology 

Answer:  

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Q37: 
Researchers took a group of teenagers who had never smoked and for one year tracked 
whether they took up smoking and how their mental health changed.  Those who began 
smoking within a month of the study’

s start were four times as likely to be depressed at 

the study’

s end than those who did not begin smoking.  Since nicotine in cigarettes 

changes brain chemistry, perhaps thereby affecting mood, it is likely that smoking 
contributes to depression in teenagers. 
 

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25 

Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument? 
 

A.  Participants who were depressed at the study’

s start were no more likely to be 

smokers at the study’s end than those who were not depressed. 

B.  Participants who began smoking within a month of the study’

s start were no more 

likely than those who began midway through to have quit smoking by the study’

end. 

C.  Few, if any, of the participants in the study were friends or relatives of other 

participants. 

D.  Some participants entered and emerged from a period of depression within the 

year of the study. 

E.  The researchers did not track use of alcohol by the teenagers. 

   Answer:  

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Q38: 
In January of last year the Moviemania chain of movie theaters started propping its 
popcorn in canola oil, instead of the less healthful coconut oil that it had been using until 
then.  Now Moviemania is planning to switch back, saying that the change has hurt 
popcorn sales.  That claim is false, however, since according to Moviemania’

s own sales 

figures, Moviemania sold 5 percent more popcorn last year than in the previous year. 
 
Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the argument against 
Moviemania’

s claim? 

 

A.  Total sales of all refreshments at Moviemania’

s movie theaters increased by less 

than 5 percent last year. 

B.  Moviemania makes more money on food and beverages sold at its theaters than it 

does on sales of movie tickets. 

C.  Moviemania’

s customers prefer the taste of popcorn popped in coconut oil to that 

of popcorn popped in canola oil. 

D.  Total attendance at Moviemania’

s movie theaters was more than 20 percent 

higher last year than the year before.  

E.  The year before last, Moviemania experienced a 10 percent increase in popcorn 

sales over the previous year. 

   Answer:  

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Q39: 
Over 75 percent of the energy produced in France derives from nuclear power, while in 
Germany it is just over 33 percent. 
 

A.  while in Germany it is just over 33 percent 
B.  compared to Germany, which uses just over 33 percent 
C.  whereas nuclear power accounts for just over 33 percent of the energy produced 

in Germany 

D.  whereas just over 33 percent of the energy comes from nuclear power in Germany 

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26 

E.  compared with the energy from nuclear power in Germany, where it is just over 

33 percent 

   Answer:  

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Q40: 
Agricultural societies cannot exist without staple crops.  Several food plants, such as kola 
and okra, are known to have been domesticated in western Africa, but they are all 
supplemental, not staple, foods.  All the recorded staple crops grown in western Africa 
were introduced from elsewhere, beginning, at some unknown date, with rice and yams.  
Therefore, discovering when rice and yams were introduced into western Africa would 
establish the earliest date at which agricultural societies could have arisen there. 
 
Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? 
 

A.  People in western Africa did not develop staple crops that they stopped cultivating 

once rice and yams were introduced. 

B.  There are no plants native to western Africa that, if domesticated, could serve as 

staple food crops. 

C.  Rice and yams were grown as staple crops by the earliest agricultural societies 

outside of western Africa. 

D.  Kola and okra are better suited to growing conditions in western Africa than 

domesticated rice and yams are. 

E.  Kola and okra were domesticated in western Africa before rice and yams were 

introduced there. 

   Answer:  

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Q41: 
A new study suggests that the conversational pace of everyday life may be so brisk it 
hampers the ability of some children for distinguishing discrete sounds and words and, 
the result is, to make sense of speech. 
 

A.  it hampers the ability of some children for distinguishing discrete sounds and 

words and, the result is, to make 

B.  that it hampers the ability of some children to distinguish discrete sounds and 

words and, as a result, to make 

C.  that it hampers the ability of some children to distinguish discrete sounds and 

words and, the result of this, they are unable to make 

D.  that it hampers the ability of some children to distinguish discrete sounds and 

words, and results in not making 

E.  as to hamper the ability of some children for distinguishing discrete sounds and 

words, resulting in being unable to make 

   Answer:  

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27 

 
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Answers: 
BDEBA, CDADA, AA_CA, EEBAB, BACAD, BCCEB, BADDC, EAADA, B  (Q13 is 
missing!)